About This Video
Shawn's teaching explores the interpretation of Romans 3:22, questioning whether righteousness comes by faith in Jesus Christ or by the faith Jesus Christ possessed, highlighting translation choices that influence theological understanding. He reviews commentaries and Greek grammar explanations to demonstrate both interpretations are grammatically viable, urging individuals to interpret the scripture in a manner that resonates personally, while maintaining love and faith.
The Curious Case of Romans 3:22
I have a question for you.
Is the righteousness of God by faith ON Jesus Christ or is it by the faith OF Jesus Christ? In other words, does our righteousness come by the faith we have in Jesus Christ or does our righteousness come by the FAITH of Jesus Christ himself? You may wonder why I ask such a question but it does speak to the Curious Case of Romans 3:22.
Faith in Jesus Christ
What does Romans 3:22 say? In the King James it says:
Roman 3:22
Even the righteousness of God [which is] by faith of Jesus Christ unto all and upon all them that believe: for there is no difference:
The faith of Jesus Christ? Doesn’t that imply that we are imputed with the righteousness of God by the Faith Jesus Christ possessed? It does. Is the King James wrong? Should it read:
By faith ON Jesus Christ instead of by the faith OF Jesus Christ?
There is a huge difference. So I dug in and found some commentary on this.
Quoting from A Critical and Exegetical Commentary on the Epistle to the Romans (Edinburgh: T&T Clark Limited, 1975) Cranfield writes, "The genitive ‘christou’ expresses the object of faith (cf. v. 26; and also Mk 11:22; Acts 3:16; Gal 2:16 (twice), 20; 3:22; Eph 3:12; Phil 3:9; Col 2:12). Here, for the first time in the epistle Christ is explicitly referred to as the object of faith." Alright, fair enough. The King James has it right. But then a footnote after the verse referenced states, "The suggestion that it should be understood as a subjective … is altogether unconvincing" (p.203).
A.T. Robertson, in his Word Pictures in the New Testament said: {Through faith in Jesus Christ} (dia pisteôs [Iêsou] Christou). Intermediate agency (dia’ is faith and objective genitive, "in Jesus Christ," not subjective "of Jesus Christ," in spite of Haussleiter's contention for that idea.” Okay. Another endorsement for the King James translation.
Subjective vs. Objective Genitive Case
But to explain the difference between a subjective and objective genitive case, a Greek grammar book says: “We have the subjective genitive when the noun in the genitive produces the action, being therefore related as subject to the verbal idea of the noun modified.” And it goes on and says “We have this construction when the noun in the genitive receives the action, being thus related as object to the verbal Idea contained in the noun.” That is from Dana and Mantey. A Manual Grammar of the Greek New Testament. New York: Macmillan, 1955, pp.78,79).
So, the phrase "faith of Jesus" would be taking the genitive in the subjective sense; and "Faith in Jesus" would be taking it in the latter. And listen – both are grammatically possible. So, it is up to the translator to decide which way to go even though the different interpretations mean very different things. So what is the result?
Romans 3:22
(KJV) Even the righteousness of God [which is] by faith of Jesus Christ unto all and upon all them that believe: for there is no difference: But the (NKJV of the same has, “even the righteousness of God, through faith in Jesus Christ, to all and on all who believe. For there is no difference; The (BBE) That is, the righteousness of God through faith in Jesus Christ, to all those who have faith; and one man is not different from another,
Ro 3:22 (MNT, Oracle, RSV, Web all use “faith in Jesus Christ,” The WNT uses faith ON Jesus Christ And the MKJV, YLT and Darby all use Faith of Jesus Christ – like the King James. I say go as led, read as led, believe as led and love always in between.
